prophecy has ceased?

1 Corinthians 13:8 - 14:5; "Love never ends; as for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; as for knowledge, it will pass away. For our knowledge is imperfect and our prophecy is imperfect; but when the perfect comes, the imperfect will pass away. When I was a child, I spoke like a child, I thought like a child, I reasoned like a child; when I became a man, I gave up childish ways. For now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall understand fully, even as I have been fully understood. So faith, hope, love abide, these three; but the greatest of these is love. Make love your aim, and earnestly desire the spiritual gifts, especially that you may prophesy. For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit. On the other hand, he who prophesies speaks to men for their upbuilding and encouragement and consolation. He who speaks in a tongue edifies himself, bu the who prophesies edifies the church. Now I want you all to speak in tongues, but even more to prophesy. He who prophesies is greater than he who speaks in tongues, unless some one interprets, so that the church may be edified."

I won't try to rehash arguments from other passages nor all the logic around it nor the historical record. The point of this post is to look at this passage alone regarding the existence of prophecy today. I perceive this is the most popular passage for supporting the cessation of spiritual gifts. The idea is that that which is perfect, the Canon of Scripture, the objective truth, is now available and therefore we no longer need these subjective "gifts".

I understand this passage as saying just the opposite. Prophecy will pass away because it will be replaced by perfection and completion. Verses 9-10 contrasts "our knowledge is imperfect" and "when the perfect comes, the imperfect will pass away". Verse 12 parallels that contrast with, "now I know in part" with "then I shall understand fully". Verse 12 is describing the coming of the perfect that is referred to in verse 10.
So what is Paul saying in verse 12 when he says, "Now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face."? The first option is that before the New Testament is written we see in a mirror dimly, but then when the New Testament is written we shall see face to face. The second option is that in this age we see in a mirror dimly, but then when the Lord returns we shall see face to face.
Re 22.4 tells us it is heaven we shall see God's face. 1 Jn 3.2 tells us that when Jesus appears we shall be like Him for we shall see Him as He is. Therefore I conclude that today we see as in a mirror of old times, that is fuzzy and somewhat distorted. That is the symptom of our age, not only of the time prior to the New Testament Canon.

The second half of verse 12 is similar, "Now I know in part; then I shall be understand fully, even as I have been fully understood." Again, is Paul saying that until the Canon we would know in part but after this all would be fully understood? Or is it more likely that when we are with the Father, freed from all that causes us misunderstand, that we will know in full? The latter seems more likely.

Bottom line - God wants us to eagerly desire His gifts and He continue these imperfect, partial experiences of the fullness of His Kingdom until such a time that we go to join Him or He returns. Until then, enjoy all that He wants for you .

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